Translated by Ollie Richardson & Angelina Siard
For already more than a year American politicians, intelligence agencies, military, and media in eager rivalry squeal about Russian interference in their elections…
And let’s ask ourselves a question: what in general is “interference in elections”? Does it so happen that it can be admissible (within the law) or inadmissible? If yes, then which forms of interference are admissible and which are not?
For example, if Russia considers that in the US there is some incorrect democracy (that their system of electors is wildness, and that the two-party system is wildness and an anachronism), then is it admissible for us to create institutes and public organisations in the United States for the promotion of the “correct” democracy?
Is it admissible for us to give out political grants to local activists? Is it admissible for our instructors to in large numbers teach Americans methods of “nonviolent resistance” according to the late Gene Sharp?
Is it admissible for radio “Voice of Russia” [a reference to “Voice of America“ – ed] and “Equality” [a reference to “Radio Svoboda“ – ed] to broadcast around the clock about how undemocratic the regime in the US is and how the thievish American establishment embezzles the budget (party of elephant swindlers and party of asinine thieves, yeah)?
Is it admissible for money – for example 5 billion dollars – to be earmarked in the Russian budget for “promoting democracy in the US”?
Is it admissible for the FBI agent recruited by the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service Vypivaychenko [a reference to Nalyvaichenko – ed] to carry out field training for radical groups in firearm proficiency, hand-to-hand and knife combat, and mine sapping, and conducting sabotage?
Is it admissible for a Russian political strategist to lead street protests in the US and for American oppositional politicians to every day run to the Russian Embassy for instructions?
It is admissible for Lavrov to distribute Tula gingerbreads [in reference to Nuland’s cookies – ed] to the participants of “Occupy Wall Street”?
Is it admissible for a Russian flag to be flown next to the American one on the building of the CIA’s headquarters in Langley?
If all of this can’t be implemented in relation to the US, if all of this is “interfering in internal affairs” and “infringing on State sovereignty”, then why did the US do all of this in Ukraine (and in many other countries)?
If some of the American establishment considers Trump to be illegitimate because he came to power allegedly by means of “Russian hackers”, then to what extent is Poroshenko illegitimate, since it is proven that he was brought to power by Americans? So then for him it’s not impeachment that should be declared, but three years of a firing squad.
On what basis does the US State Department interfere in the internal affairs of Ukraine, gives weapons to one of the sides of the civil war, demands the creation of an “anti-corruption court”, and even increases tariffs for housing and communal services? Isn’t this interference in the internal affairs of another State?
In reality “the cat knows whose meat it ate”. The Americans are so desperately afraid of interference in their internal affairs because they themselves constantly interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
That’s why “Russian hackers” seem to be everywhere for them. That’s why they fire their officials just because the Russian ambassador talked to them. That’s why they are hysterical concerning the broadcasting of “Russia Today” on their territory.
After all, they are familiar with THEIR own methods.
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